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The possession of such an achievement once entitled the right to use swords and, later, rifles; hence the verb to bear arms carries both possible meanings.
When and where has there been such a legal link?
In feudal times the armigers were roughly those wealthy enough to supply their own equipment for war; later, there was a Prussian saying that das Portepee adelt (the sword-knot ennobles), meaning that to become an officer (whose uniform included a porte-épée) was to join the gentry. But these points are not equivalent to the claim made.
One thing that comes to mind is language of the English Bill of Rights 1689, promising (to Protestants of good character) the right to possess arms befitting their station, whatever that means. (Paraphrased from fallible memory.) —Tamfang (talk) 20:33, 3 May 2009 (UTC)[reply]
